0
$\begingroup$

I have been going through the minimization of Variational inference and have a good understanding of all the steps taken: enter image description here

However, there is a part that relies on KL >= 0: enter image description here

I have derived the proof that D(P||Q) getting the same results as in Why KL divergence is non-negative?. Although, I don't see how this result applies to D(q(z)||p(z|x)) >= 0, and am having a hard time deriving the proof to apply this fact in this, is it possible to derive KL >= 0 for this case?

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ 1) Nothing you've written so far relies on KL divergence being non-negative. But, non-negativity may be important in future steps (e.g. to show a lower bound on the log evidence). 2) KL divergence is always non-negative. There's nothing special about $q(z)$ and $p(z \mid x)$ compared to other distributions. Since you've already proved that KL divergence is non-negative, what are your concerns about this particular case? $\endgroup$
    – user20160
    Dec 6, 2021 at 15:49
  • $\begingroup$ In this particularly case, the KL divergence is KL(q(z)||p(z|x)), which I end up getting log$\sum_z P(Z|x)$ at the final step is it valid to assume that this is still log(1) = 0? Thanks $\endgroup$
    – Frank
    Dec 6, 2021 at 15:54

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.