I have the total number of incidents occurred within a given setting pre (e.g. 100) and post (e.g. 60) intervention and need to find out if the reduction is statistically significant. Would a paired T-Test be appropriate? For some reason I have my doubts...Anyone can help?
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$\begingroup$ Do you have pre and post data for a single location only? What’s the unit of observation? $\endgroup$– dimitriyCommented Dec 10, 2021 at 16:38
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$\begingroup$ Yes. They just gave the total number of incidents within the service (measured across 4 months) before the intervention and after the intervention. So its 40 incidents before and 33 after. $\endgroup$– CarolinaCommented Dec 10, 2021 at 16:44
1 Answer
Unfortunately, a paired t-test cannot work with only a single pair.
One idea is to try a two-sample test of proportions. Say you have two four-month chunks of data (120 days pre with 40 incidents and 120 post-change with 33).
The output will look something this:
. prtesti 120 33 120 40, level(95) count
Two-sample test of proportions x: Number of obs = 120
y: Number of obs = 120
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
| Mean Std. err. z P>|z| [95% conf. interval]
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
x | .275 .040761 .1951099 .3548901
y | .3333333 .0430331 .2489899 .4176768
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
diff | -.0583333 .0592732 -.1745066 .05784
| under H0: .0593927 -0.98 0.326
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
diff = prop(x) - prop(y) z = -0.9822
H0: diff = 0
Ha: diff < 0 Ha: diff != 0 Ha: diff > 0
Pr(Z < z) = 0.1630 Pr(|Z| > |z|) = 0.3260 Pr(Z > z) = 0.8370
Here the null hypothesis H0 is that the incident rate is the same in the two 120 day periods. This is the claim you presumably want to argue against. The output reports results for three alternative hypotheses. I think the appropriate alternative is that the incidence rate declined, so Ha is diff < 0 is the test to focus on. The p-value for that one is 0.1630. The interpretation of that number is the following: if there was no difference in the incidence rate in the two periods, you would still see 30 or fewer incidents 16% of the time by chance alone. This means that the data is fairly consistent with there being no effect. It does not mean that there is no effect, just that you can't distinguish it with the data you have. In other words, you cannot reject the null hypothesis. If you want some more intuition about hypothesis testing, there is a nice example here.
With more data, something more sophisticated could be done, with fewer assumptions, but this is probably the best route for the data you have.
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$\begingroup$ Thank you!!!You are very kind and I really appreciate your help! I had originally requested monthly data to carry out an interrupted time series but the data returned was inconsistent and very messy! $\endgroup$– CarolinaCommented Dec 10, 2021 at 19:14