I am inspecting the PH assumption of a Cox model, both by testing it (with cox.zph
in R) and visualizing the Schoenfeld residuals. I found many references with cases where the test is significant, but looking at the residuals, it looks there is no violation. This is the case with large sample size.
I have the other way around. I ran a Cox model adjusting for multiple variables with quite a large sample size, 6000 observations, 2000 events. One of them shows no violation of PH according to the test, but looking at the plot, I am wondering if there could be something. On the the left with the data, on the right without. To me, it looks like the variability of beta(t) is quite important at the end, after 25-28 days. So in favor of a time-varying coefficient. because a log-hazard ratio of zero around 11-15 days and 1 at the end is quite substantial.
Does it make sense to have such a behaviour? And no accounting for the result of the test? Scientifcally speaking, it would also make sense to observe this change.