Let $X_1, \dots, X_n \in \mathbb{R}^p$ be i.i.d. samples from the $p$-normal distribution $N(\theta, \tau^2 I)$. Suppose we are interested in estimating $\theta$ with known variance $\tau^2$. Take the loss to be squared error.
Define the estimator $\delta(X_1, \dots, X_n)$. Is there someway to prove that a suitably constructed estimator $\tilde{\delta}(\bar{X})$ will never be dominated by $\delta(X_1, \dots, X_n)$, for the sample mean $\bar{X} = \sum_{i=1}^n X_i / n$? Some facts that might be helpful:
- The sample mean $\bar{X}$ is sufficient for $\theta$
- The loss is convex
I ask because often texts will only focus on the $n=1$ case when talking about the e.g. James-Stein estimator, suggesting that some averaging has occurred beforehand.