I am struggling to understand how the below result of the autocovariance of an explosive AR(1) process is derived, taken from Time Series Analysis and its Applications (R. H. Shumway & D. S. Stoffer 2ed).
As I understand it, we can represent the covariance as
$$ \mathbb{E}[(-\phi^{-1}w_{t+h+1}-\phi^{-2}w_{t+h+2}-...)(-\phi^{-1}w_{t+1}-...-\phi^{-h-1}w_{t+h+1}-\phi^{-h-2}w_{t+h+2}-...)]$$ Which then works out to $$\phi^{-1}\phi^{-h-1}\sigma_w^2+\phi^{-2}\phi^{-h-2}\sigma_w^2+...$$ And hence $$\sum\limits_{j = 1}^\infty {\phi^{-j}\phi^{-h-j}\sigma_w^2} = \sigma_w^2\phi^{-h}\sum\limits_{j = 1}^\infty {(\phi^{-2})^j}$$ Which we can treat as a geometric series, using
$$\sum\limits_{j=1}^\infty{a_jr^j}=\frac{a_1}{1-r} $$
However, I'm not sure we can do this because the limits aren't the same. Even if we did I keep getting $$\sigma_w^2\phi^{-h}\sum\limits_{j = 1}^\infty {(\phi^{-2})^j} = \frac{\sigma_w^2\phi^{-h}}{1-\phi^{-2}}$$ So I'm not sure where the additional $\phi^{-2}$ is coming from in the numerator of the textbook's result.