I'm having a hard time parsing the logic behind the formulas in the 1-way ANOVA. I'll first establish what I understand so far which will lead into my question.
The objective of a 1-way ANOVA is to test the null hypothesis that the population means for all conditions are the same:
$$H_0: \mu_1 = \mu_2 = ... = \mu_k$$
In other words, we are interested in seeing if all the samples are coming from the same population with mean, $\mu$, and variance, $\sigma^2$.
One of the key assumptions of the 1-way ANOVA is the "homogeneity of variance" which states that the variance within each of the populations ($\sigma^2$) is the same. Thus, we can use the pooled variance of all the samples, $S_p$, as an estimator for $\sigma^2$. I believe this pooled variance is more commonly known as the Mean Square Within (MSW):
$$S_p = MSW = \frac{\sum_{j=1}^{k}\sum_{i = 1}^{n_j}(Y_{ij}-\bar{Y_j})^2}{N - k} = \frac{\sum_{j=1}^{k}(n_j - 1)s_j}{N-k} = \frac{SSW}{N-k}$$
Ok great, now we have an estimate for the population variance. It would then make sense logically to see how the sample means themselves vary relative to the population variance. If the sample means are all close to each other ("closeness" is of course defined by the estimated population variance), then the null hypothesis is probably true.
But how do we calculate this variance between the sample means? Well here are 2 potential ways:
1.) The "grand variance", S: $$S = \frac{\sum_{j=1}^{k}\sum_{i = 1}^{n_j}(Y_{ij}-\bar{Y})^2}{N - 1} = \frac{TSS}{N-1}$$ where $TSS$ is the Total Sum of Squares.
2.) Using the Mean Square Between (MSB): $$MSB = \frac{\sum_{j=1}^{k}n_j(\bar{Y_j} - \bar{Y})^2}{k - 1} = \frac{SSB}{k-1}$$ where $SSB$ is the Sum of Squares Between.
My question: How come the MSB is the preferred way of calculating this "variance between sample means"? Is it an estimator for a certain statistic? Is it because of the useful relationship:
$$SST = SSW + SSB$$