Reading the wiki I saw the statemeent that: "The distribution of the product of two random variables which have lognormal distributions is again lognormal. This is itself a special case of a more general set of results where the logarithm of the product can be written as the sum of the logarithms"
This enters in contadiction with my previous undernstanding( mainly the need of uspposing a bivariate lognormal distribution in order to obtain such a result)
Does anybody have some insight on the rational for such an assumption on the wiki?
Thank you a lot in advance,