Assume a collection of independent exponential random variables $y_{1}, \ldots, y_{n}$ with means $\mu_{1}, \ldots, \mu_{n}$; where $\mu_{i} = \beta_{0}+\beta_{1}x_{i}$.
How can I find the profile likelihood of $\beta_{1}$?
From what I gather, the profile likelihood is a technique for eliminating so-called "nuisance parameters" from a given inference. This is typically achieved by maximising the likelihood with respect to the nuisance parameters whilst holding the parameters of interest fixed.
For the two-parameter model described above, because we are only interested in $\beta_{1}$, we can consider $\beta_{0}$ as a nuisance parameter.
ATTEMPT:
Firstly, given that $\mu_{1}, \ldots, \mu_{n}$ are the means for $y_{1}, \ldots, y_{n}$ exponential variables, and, in general notation, the mean of the exponential distribution is given by $\lambda^{-1}$, then each random variable must follow an $\text{Exp}((\lambda^{-1})^{-1}) \implies \text{Exp}(\mu^{-1})$; in other words:
For $i=1, \ldots, n$:
$$ \mu_{i}^{-1}\text{exp}\left\{-\mu_{i}^{-1}y_{i}\right\} $$
Now, to determine the form of the likelihood, we form $p(x_{1}) \times p(x_{2}) \times \ldots \times p(x_{n})$, hence,
$$ L(\mu) = \prod_{i=1}^{n} \left[\mu_{i}^{-1}\text{exp}\left\{-\mu_{i}^{-1}y_{i}\right\}\right] $$
Simplifying we get,
$$ = \left[\prod_{i=1}^{n}\mu_{i}^{-1}\right]\text{exp}\left\{-\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{y_{i}}{\mu_{i}}\right\} $$
Because $\text{log}\left(\prod_{i=1}^{n}\mu_{i}^{-1}\right) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\text{log}\left(\mu_{i}^{-1}\right)$, we get:
$$ \text{log}(L(\theta)) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\text{log}\left(\mu_{i}^{-1}\right)-\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{y_{i}}{\mu_{i}} $$
Now, subbing in for $\mu_{i} = \beta_{0}+\beta_{1}x_{i}$, gives:
$$ = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\text{log}(\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}x_{i})^{-1}-\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{y_{i}}{\beta_{0}+\beta_{1}x_{i}} $$
Now that we have the log-likelihood, can we just find the MLE for $\beta_{0}$, substitute the acquired MLE for $\beta_{0}$ back into the log-likelihood and simplify? Will this achieve the profile likelihood for $\beta_{1}$?
In other words, where $\hat{\beta_{0}}$ is the MLE for $\beta_{0}$, will the profile likelihood be given by the following?
$$ L_{p}(\beta_{1}) = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\text{log}(\hat{\beta}_{0}+\beta_{1}x_{i})^{-1}-\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{y_{i}}{\hat{\beta}_{0}+\beta_{1}x_{i}} $$
Note the "hat" notation for $\beta_{0}$in the above.