Suppose I have data $y$ (N observations) which follows a normal distribution:
$y \sim N(\alpha+\beta*\mu,\sigma^2)$
while $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are known parameters. I want to update $\mu$ and the prior is $\mu \sim N(\mu_0,\sigma^2_0)$.
My question is what is the posterior distribution for $\mu$?
I know the posterior when $X \sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)$ (here). But in my case, $y$ is a shifted and scaled version of $X$.
For my own derivation, I treat the above as a regression problem, and I get
$\mu \sim N(\frac{\beta^T(y-\alpha)+\mu_0/\sigma^2_0}{\beta^T\beta+1/\sigma^2_0},\frac{\sigma^2}{\beta^t\beta+1/\sigma^2})$
However, the above formula does seem correct. For instance, suppose I have two data, $y_1$ and $y_2$. Updating with $y_1$ then $y_2$ vs updating with $y_2$ then $y_1$ will result in different posteriors.
Any help is appreciated!