How do I calculate the VaR in case of using an ARMA-GARCH approach? I am not good at time series, so I am more or less confused with the different possible notations of an ARMA-GARCH process. I hope the notation I use is correct.
Suppose I use the following AR(1)-GARCH(1,1):
\begin{align*} r_t=\delta + \phi_1 r_{t-1} + z_t\\ z_t = \sigma_t \epsilon_t\\ \epsilon_t \text{ is } N(0,1)\\ \sigma_t^2=\alpha_0+\alpha_1 z_{t-1}^2+\beta \sigma_{t-1}^2 \end{align*}
I mean, I would have to calculate a quantile at timepoint t. Normally in case of a more simpler approach: $r_t=\mu + \sigma_t*\epsilon_t$ and the $\epsilon_t$ is N(0,1) this would give $VaR=\mu + \hat{\sigma_t}*z_\alpha$ where $z_\alpha$ is the quantile of the standard normal. How to do this in case of the ARMA-GARCH approach? I now have no $\mu$, but an AR process?
I read some papers, they all give more or less the ARMA-GARCH formula and say that they generate the forecast, but they give no formula, how to do this.