To use OLS for inference, is it necessary in all cases that the premise of homoscedasticity is met?
I need to check the influence of some features (eg age, income...) on a variable y (whether or not I bought a property) in a real case. I thought about using linear regression interpreting the coefficients and I know that if there is heteroscedasticity it affects the reliability of the significance tests and confidence intervals are incorrect. But I'm not sure it would affect the regression coefficients as well.