I feel like I am missing some easy point about this invertible resnet paper which is making it hard for me to grasp how the fixed point iteration works.
stated simply, the residual connection in a resnet architecture is of the form $y = x + f(x)$. Therefore, one could run things in reverse to get $x = y - f(x)$. The main point of the paper is that if $f(.)$ is a contraction mapping, meaning that the Lipschitz constant is less than 1, $$ || f(x) - f(x') || < k|| x - x' || \;\; \forall x \in X $$
then we can do a fixed point iteration where $x_0 = y$ and $x_{t+1} = y - f(x_t)$ which will converge to $x = y - f(x)$.
Question
I understand that a contraction mapping must converge to a fixed point via the Banach Fixed Point Theorem. What I do not understand is why the fixed point in this case will converge to $f(x)$. It states in Section 2 above Lemma 2 that
Note, that the starting value for the fixed-point iteration can be any vector, because the fixed-point is unique. However, using the output $y = x+g(x)$ as the initialization $x_0 := y$ is a good starting point since $y$ was obtained from $x$ only via a bounded perturbation of the identity.
So why is it the case that the contraction point is exactly at $x$ and not some other arbitrary point in the space?