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I conducted an analytical Cross-Sectional Study, the aim was to detect the difference between exposed group and control group in regard to an outcome. Because there was no previous study investigating the same outcome on the same population (No previously reported effect size to calculatethe requiredsample sized), I calculated the sample size based on the underlining event rate (prevalence of exposure among the population).

The question is, is it correct to calculate the sample size in such a case in that way?

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  • $\begingroup$ When you view this as being essentially an educated guess, rather than a calculation, the question disappears: correctness is not an issue. $\endgroup$
    – whuber ♦
    Jun 14, 2022 at 16:54

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