Say you have 2 random variables $x, y$ and a copula $C$ to model their interdependence. The two distributions are made uniform and the copula has some form (e.g., Gaussian, Clayton).
Given that, does that mean that the resulting joint cumulative distribution function $F(x,y)=C(F(X),F(Y))$ has the same form as the copula (e.g., Gaussian, Clayton).