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I have been trying to learn more about the inner workings of different correlations lately and noticed that the Pearson correlation so far has been easy to figure out the why's and how's of. However, I have found the Spearman correlation is quite straightforward to calculate, but I'm having trouble understanding why there is even a 6 here in the first place:

spearman

Is there a simple explanation as to why? I haven't seen any questions here that address this.

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    $\begingroup$ en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/…. Simply put, "6" is a natural consequence of expanding sample pearson correlation when the data is $(R(X_i), R(Y_i)), i = 1, \ldots, n$. $\endgroup$
    – Zhanxiong
    Commented Aug 4, 2022 at 4:00
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    $\begingroup$ That doesn't really say much about the mechanics of what it is doing though. Perhaps you can elaborate. $\endgroup$
    – Shawn Hemelstrand
    Commented Aug 4, 2022 at 5:35
  • $\begingroup$ Have you carefully gone through (click to expand) the "Proof" box under its Definition and calculation section? $\endgroup$
    – Zhanxiong
    Commented Aug 4, 2022 at 12:40

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