I believe there is a misconcept in my mind about the $\chi^2$ and/or standard normal distribution. Hence, I would like you to help me to understand what does it means that the $\chi_k^2$ distribution is a sum of $k$ independent, squared, standard, normal distributions.
In fact, according with many online sources, such as Wikipedia, the $\chi^2$ is
$$ \chi_k^2 = \sum_{i=1}^k Z_i^2 $$
where $Z_i$ are the $k$ different standard normal distributions. Furthermore, according with such sources, in some ways this sum becomes
$$ f(x;k) = \frac{ x^{ \frac{k}{2} - 1 }e^{ -\frac{x}{2} } }{ 2^{\frac{k}{2}}\Gamma\left(\frac{k}{2}\right) }\quad\textrm{ if }x>0,\qquad 0\qquad\textrm{ otherwise} $$
My problem is in what follows:
As far as I know, the normal distribution is
$$ Z = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} $$
and it gets "normalized" with a transformation that makes $\mu = 0$ and $\sigma = 1$, which is
$$ Z(0,1) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac{x^2}{2}} $$
Now, the STANDARD normal distribution has no parameters at all, which means that in the $\chi_k^2$ distribution the sum could be replaced just with a multiplication
$$ \chi_k^2 = kZ^2 $$
which has to be wrong, otherwise there would be not such a complicated defition of the $\chi^2$ distribution.
What's wrong in all of this? Please, let me know
in some ways this sum becomes...
it happens in a legit way. You can take resort to the uniqueness of MGF to derive the distribution of a gamma variate with the concerned parameters. $\endgroup$