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Background

I'm working with longitudinal survey data collected at two time points. Pre-treatment data were collected, subjects were randomly assigned to a treatment/control group, then post-treatment variables were collected. My aim is to estimate the following equation, where $\beta_1$ is the parameter of interest: $$\eta_{t_n} = \alpha + \beta_1 (Treat_n) + \beta_2 (\eta_{t-1_n}) + \epsilon_n$$

  • $\eta_t$ is a latent variable measured post-treatment by 3 items $[y_{4_n}, y_{5_n}, y_{6_n}]$ for each subject $n \in N$.
  • $Treat_n$ is an observed dummy variable indicating the experiment group of subject $n$.
  • $\eta_{t-1}$ is a latent variable measured pre-treatment by 3 items $[y_{1_n}, y_{2_n}, y_{3_n}]$ for each $n$.

I am specifying this as a Bayesian structural equation model identified by fixing the first loading of each factor and the latent factor means to 0. I don't want to fix parameters to be invariant across time as $\beta_2$ is a nuisance parameter rather than of substantive interest, but do want to correlate the item residual variances. Assume no missing data and all $y$ are standardized to mean 0 and standard deviation of 1. $Treat$ is not standardized/centered.

Question

While I can model the two latent factors $\eta_t$ and $eta_{t-1}$ as bivariate normal with estimated variances and covariances to obtain the covariance between the factors, how can I incorporate the exogenous observed variable $Treat_n$ so that it is correlated with $\eta_{t_n}$ but not $\eta_{t-1_n}$ and I can estimate the equation above (with the intercept)?

An example without $Treat$ is below, where we'll assume the $\eta$ values are bivariate normal. I've left "??" in the parameters since I'm not sure how what goes there.

Note:

  • Observed variables assumed uncorrelated conditional on the latent variable, thus the zeroes on the residual error covariance matrix.
  • Model is identified by setting $\lambda_1$ to 1 and $\xi$ to 0.
  • Assumes $y$ have been standardized to mean 0 and standard deviation 1. $$ \begin{pmatrix} y_{1_{n}} \\ y_{2_{n}} \\ y_{3_{n}} \\ y_{4_{n}} \\ y_{5_{n}} \\ y_{6_{n}} \\ \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} \tau_1 \\ \tau_2 \\ \tau_3 \\ \tau_4 \\ \tau_5 \\ \tau_6 \\ \end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix} 1 \\ \lambda_2 \\ \lambda_3 \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \eta_{t-1_{n}} \end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \\ \lambda_5 \\ \lambda_6 \\ \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \eta_{1_{n}} \end{pmatrix} + \begin{pmatrix} \epsilon_{1_n}\\ \epsilon_{2_n} \\ \epsilon_{3_n} \\ \epsilon_{4_n} \\ \epsilon_{5_n} \\ \epsilon_{6_n} \end{pmatrix} \\ $$

$$ \begin{pmatrix} \epsilon_{1_n}\\ \epsilon_{2_n} \\ \epsilon_{3_n} \\ \epsilon_{4_n} \\ \epsilon_{5_n} \\ \epsilon_{6_n} \end{pmatrix} \sim MVN(\begin{pmatrix} 0 \\0 \\0 \\0 \\0 \\0 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 & \sigma_{1,4} & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & \sigma_{2,5} & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 & \sigma_{3,6} \\ \sigma_{1,4} & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & \sigma_{2,5} & 0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & \sigma_{3,6} & 0 & 0 & 1 \\ \end{pmatrix}) $$

$$ \begin{pmatrix} \eta_{t_n} \\ \eta_{t-1_{n}} \end{pmatrix} = MVN(\begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} ?? & ?? \\ ?? & ?? \end{pmatrix}) $$

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  • $\begingroup$ what software are you using? $\endgroup$
    – Terrence
    Sep 11, 2022 at 13:10
  • $\begingroup$ @Terrence RStan. Was thinking of using the phantom factor approach for the correlated residuals. $\endgroup$ Sep 12, 2022 at 23:11
  • $\begingroup$ If you are manually creating you Stan syntax, you don't need to model Treat at all. It is an exogenous predictor, and you can just regress \eta_t on it. It doesn't need to be represented in the MVN distribution (which is good because it is binary) if it is exogenous. No distributional assumption necessary. Treatment would be in "X" in Eq. 2 of this open-access article: doi.org/10.2333/bhmk.29.81 $\endgroup$
    – Terrence
    Sep 13, 2022 at 9:17

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