I am reading Tutz & Schmid "Modeling Discrete Time-to-Event Data" (2016) chapter 4 Evaluation and Model Choice section 4.2 Residuals and Goodness-of-Fit. A martingale residual is defined as $$ m_i = \delta_i - \sum_{s=1}^{t_i} \hat\lambda_{is}, \quad i=1,\dots,n. $$ Here, $\delta_i$ is a binary 0-1 indicator of whether individual $i$ experienced an event over the time periods 1 to $t_i$. (If not, the individual has survived beyond $t_i$ without experiencing the event.) $\hat\lambda_{is}$ is the estimated hazard, i.e. the conditional probability that individual $i$ will experience the event in the time period $s$ given the individual has survival until the beginning of that period without having experienced the event (and potentially given some covariates).
I do not get the intuition of summing up the hazards over time. We could sum up the estimated unconditional probabilities $\hat\pi_{is}$ to obtain the estimated probability of experiencing the event in at least one of the time periods between 1 and $t_i$, that would seem intuitive to me. And we could intuitively compare that to $\delta_i$; a good model would yield a small difference $m_i$, and a bad model would yield a large difference. But what kind of intuition can there be behind summing the hazards and comparing them to $\delta_i$?
Moreover, it is said that for the logistic model, the martingale residuals sum up to zero. That does not sound intuitive to me either. That would be more or less intuitive if we had $\sum_{s=1}^{t_i} \hat\pi_{is}$ instead of $\sum_{s=1}^{t_i} \hat\lambda_{is}$. However, I would expect $\sum_{s=1}^{t_i} \hat\lambda_{is} > \sum_{s=1}^{t_i} \hat\pi_{is}$ and thus $m_i$ to be negative on average and in sum.
What am I missing?