Suppose that I have a a gaussian distribution $p(x;\mu,\sigma^{2})=N(x;\mu,\sigma^{2})$ and an improper distribution $p(x)\propto 1, x\in \mathbb{R}.$
I want to calculate the probabilistic distance between those two distributions, for that I use the Kullback–Leibler divergence.
$$KL(p(x;\mu,\sigma^{2}),p(x)) = \int p(x;\mu,\sigma^{2})\frac{p(x;\mu,\sigma^{2})}{p(x)}$$
Since, the $p(x)$ gives positive density to all the real line we have that $p(x;\mu,\sigma^{2})$ is absolutely continuous to the $p(x)$. So, we can move forward with the calculation of $KL$.
Then the $KL(p(x;\mu,\sigma^{2}),p(x))= log(\frac{1}{2\pi \sigma^{2}})+\sqrt{2\pi}|\sigma|^{3}$
Is this calculation correct?? I went through the link KL divergence between gaussian and uniform distribution and it made me wonder if my calculations are right.