3
$\begingroup$

Suppose $X_1,...,X_n \sim iid N(\mu,\sigma^2)$, $\mu$ and $\sigma^2$ are unknown.
I'm interested in the distribution of normalized sample $Z=\frac{X_1-\bar{X}}{S}$, where $S=\sqrt{\frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\bar{X})^2}$.
I know that in normal family, $\bar{X}$, $S^2$ and $Z$ are mutually independent, but how can I find the distribution of $Z$? The difficult is that $X_1-\bar{X}$ and $S^2$ are not independent anymore.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ One thing you might find ... suggestive is to think about the distribution for $n=2$ and then to simulate the case for $n=4$, and then perhaps to think about $n=3$. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Oct 28, 2022 at 3:23
  • $\begingroup$ It might also help to think about writing the sum of squares in the numerator of $S^2$ in terms of $(X_1-\bar{X})^2$ and the remaining squared deviations, and ponder $(X_1-\bar{X})^2/[(n-1)S^2]$ and then think about the connection between gamma and beta variates. Putting those thoughts together might be sufficient. $\endgroup$
    – Glen_b
    Commented Oct 28, 2022 at 3:30
  • $\begingroup$ stats.stackexchange.com/q/181964/119261 $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 28, 2022 at 5:30

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

$\newcommand{\one}{\mathbf 1}\newcommand{\R}{\mathbf R}\newcommand{\Q}{\mathbf Q}$First, note that $S$ doesn't depend on $\mu$ and $X_1 - \bar X = (X_1 - \mu) - (\bar X - \mu)$, and we can also divide both numerator and denominator by $\sigma$ without changing anything, so without loss of generality we can take $\mu=0$ and $\sigma=1$.

Let $\R = I - \frac 1n \one\one^T$ so $X - \bar X \one = \R X$. Also $$ X^T\R X = X^TX - n (\bar X)^2 = \sum_{i=1}^n (X_i -\bar X)^2 $$ so we have your quantity as the first coordinate of $$ \sqrt{n-1} \frac{\R X}{\sqrt{X^T \R X}}. $$ $\R$ is the projection onto the space orthogonal to $\one$, so it has $n-1$ eigenvalues with a value of $1$ and a single eigenvalue of $0$. The eigenspace of $1$ is the part of $\mathbb R^{n}$ orthogonal to $\one$, so we can factor $\R$ as $\R = \Q\Q^T$ with $\Q \in \mathbb R^{n\times n-1}$ having orthonormal columns and $\Q^T\one = \mathbf 0$. This means $\R X \stackrel{\text d}= \Q Z$ where $Z \sim \mathcal N_{n-1}(\mathbf 0, I)$, and we now have $$ \sqrt{n-1} \frac{\R X}{\sqrt{X^T \R X}} = \sqrt{n-1} \Q \frac{Z}{\sqrt{Z^T \Q^T \Q Z}} = \sqrt{n-1} \Q \frac{Z}{\|Z\|}. $$ It is a standard result that $\frac{Z}{\|Z\|}$ is uniform on the sphere in $n-1$ dimensions, so this tells us what's going on here:

  1. we have a uniform distribution on the unit sphere in $\mathbb R^{n-1}$
  2. we lift that sphere into the hyperplane in $\mathbb R^n$ with normal vector $\one$ via $\Q$, still centered at the origin
  3. we scale by $\sqrt{n-1}$

A few immediate consequences:

  1. $\text E\left[\sqrt{n-1} \frac{\R X}{\sqrt{X^T \R X}}\right] = \sqrt{n-1} \Q \operatorname E[Z / \|Z\|] = \mathbf 0$ since the sphere is symmetric and centered at the origin.

  2. From here we see that $\operatorname{Var}[Z / \|Z\|] = \frac{1}{n-1}I$ so $\operatorname{Var}\left[\sqrt{n-1} \frac{\R X}{\sqrt{X^T \R X}}\right] = \Q\Q^T = \R$, so each coordinate has a variance of $1 - \frac 1n$. This fits the fact that $\frac{X_i - \bar X_n}{S_n} \stackrel{\text d}\to \mathcal N(0,1)$ as $n\to\infty$.

We can then follow up with the Beta distribution comments as is discussed in the comments on the answer in the second link, and as @Glen_b has written on your question.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.