I am conducting a study with a large population-based sample. We have measurements at two time-points spaced 8 years apart. I want to see if a variable at time 1 predicts changes in the DV over time. I have a set of covariates (both time-invariant and varying, e.g., race, age, gender). For our second aim, I am also looking at whether another time 1 variable moderates the association between the IV and DV. Because this is a population-based cohort study with missing data, we incorporate sampling weights into the analyses.
I conducted mixed models where I nested scores on the DV within the individual. Participant ID is a random effect and because we only have two measurements, time is a fixed effect. One of my co-authors is concerned that mixed models aren't appropriate for longitudinal designs with only two measurements. I also conducted linear regressions to see if there were differences in results between the two approaches. For these, I looked at whether the time 1 variable predicted the DV at time 2, adjusting for the DV at time 1. Generally, more of the effects were significant and larger with LMMs.
I can't find any guidance online that suggests you can't use mixed models for longitudinal data with two time points. Can anyone point me in the direction of literature I can read on this issue? Or, can anyone weigh in on whether LMMs make sense here or if I should just use regression? I have conducted LMMs before with clinical trial data, but these all had 3 measurements.