A question on a problem sheet I am working on asks us to find the Fisher information matrix (FIM) for the following setup:
Suppose that $Y_i \sim \textrm{Bin}(r_i, \pi_i)$ for $i = 1, 2, \dots , n$, all independent, where the $r_i$ are known,
$\ln({\pi_i/(1 − \pi_i)}) = \beta_0 + \beta_1 x_i$ and $x_i$ is a known covariate. We would like to find the FIM.
When finding the FIM for a model using the identity link, it is as simple as finding derivatives of the log-likelihood, here it seems more challenging. At first I wrote $\pi_i =\frac{\exp(\beta_0 + \beta_1 x_i)}{1+\exp(\beta_0 + \beta_1 x_i)}$ and attempted to differentiate the log-likelihood with respect to the parameters, but that seems to be incorrect. The solution sheet says that the following solves the problem:
"We know that $\mu_i = \pi_i r_i$ and $\eta_i=\ln(\pi_i/(1 − \pi_i)) =\ln(\mu_i /(r_i - \mu_i))$ So that $$\frac{d \eta_i}{d \mu_i}= \frac{r_i}{\mu_i(r_i- \mu_i)} = \frac{1}{r_i \pi_i(1-\pi_i)} $$Since $\operatorname{Var}(Y_i)=r_i \pi_i(1-\pi_i)$ the Fisher information matrix is given by:
$$V= \begin{pmatrix}\sum_{i=1}^nr_i \pi_i(1-\pi_i) & \sum_{i=1}^nx_ir_i \pi_i(1-\pi_i)\\ \sum_{i=1}^nx_ir_i \pi_i(1-\pi_i) & \sum_{i=1}^nx_i^2r_i \pi_i(1-\pi_i) \end{pmatrix}.$$
I am very unsure how this solution was achieved; can anyone break this down a bit more?