I hope someone can clear the doubt on conditional distribution, in a text, it mentions:
To interpret the notation $f_{X \mid Y}(x \mid y)$, we need to be clear that there is nothing random about the random variable $Y$, since it is already fixed. What remains is a sub-population distribution in terms of $X$ (i.e. the reduced sample space of $\Omega_X$ where $Y$ happened). Consequently, the conditional PMF/PDF $f_{X \mid Y}(x \mid y)$ is a distribution in terms of $X$.
I have no trouble understanding this, since conditional just means looking into the reduced sample space of $X$ where $Y$ has happened for a specific set. But soon after, when conditional expectation is mentioned, it says:
There are two points to note here. First, the expectation of $\mathbb{E}[X \mid Y=y]$ is taken with respect to $f_{X \mid Y}(x \mid y)$. We assume that the random variable $Y$ is already fixed at the state $Y=y$. Thus, the only source of randomness is $X$. Secondly, since the expectation $\mathbb{E}[X \mid Y=y]$ has eliminated the randomness of $X$, the resulting function is in $y$.
A quick read online reveals that the expectation of $X$ given $Y$ can indeed be a function of $Y$ if we treat this conditional expectation as random variable. I am just slightly confused why the conditional expectation is not a function of $X$, since the underlying conditional distribution is a function of $X$.