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As I understand it from Wikipedia, de Finetti's theorem says: "Exchangeability implies that variables are conditionally independent given some latent variable". Is the converse true as well?

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    $\begingroup$ It’s challenging to answer this question because the answer depends on a person being able to understand correctly the shorthand you’re using. Perhaps you could clarify by rewriting your question using standard English? $\endgroup$
    – Sycorax
    Jan 26, 2023 at 12:57
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    $\begingroup$ Can you formulate explicitly what the converse would be? $\endgroup$ Jan 26, 2023 at 14:45

1 Answer 1

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Finetti's theorem states that you can write an exchangeable multivariate Bernoulli distribution $X_1, X_2, \dots, X_n$ (that can be extended infinitely) as a mixture of multiple identical and independent distributions.

$$P(x_i, x_2, \dots, x_n) = \overbrace{\int_0^1 \underbrace{\prod_{i = 1}^n \theta^{x_i} (1-\theta)^{1-x_i}}_{\text{single multivariate Bernoulli}} f(\theta)\text{d}\theta }^{\text{mixture of multiple iid multivariate Bernoulli} }$$

FT: If the lefthand side has exchangeability then it can be written in a form like the right hand side.

Converse: The converse is also true. If you write something in the form of the right hand side, then the lefthand side will have exchangeability.

The converse is true because each individual term in the integral is exchangeable, and that makes also the mixture exchangeable.

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