0
$\begingroup$

enter image description here

I am confused by the second line and the third line of the autocovariance calculation. Like how the var() and the 0 come, and why there is t*sigma^2 at the end.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ $var(Y)=E[(Y -E[Y])^2]=E[Y^2]-(E[Y])^2$ may help $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Feb 14, 2023 at 1:12
  • $\begingroup$ How the 0 term come? $\endgroup$
    – Vivien
    Commented Feb 14, 2023 at 1:31
  • $\begingroup$ It comes from $E[X_t]=0$ so $(E[X_t])^2=0$ and $E[X_t]E[X_s]=0$ $\endgroup$
    – Henry
    Commented Feb 14, 2023 at 9:24

1 Answer 1

0
$\begingroup$

The second term is $\mathbb E\left[\sum_{1\leq j\leq k}Z_j\sum_{1\leq j'\leq k}Z_{t+j'}\right].$ Now $\langle Z_j\rangle$ is a white noise process. That means $\mathbb E[Z_tZ_\tau] =0$ when $t\ne \tau.$ So, the concerned term yields zero.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.