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I am interested in whether it is ever logical to specify a random slope of a variable that is not listed as a fixed effect in the model. For clarity, I have provided an example below.

10 Participants complete a reaction time (RT) task identifying whether a sentence makes sense or not. Sentences are from two conditions (Condition A and Condition B). There are 10 different sentences used, with each sentence appearing twice (once in each condition). All participants see the same sentences.

For clarity, here is a sample of this dataset:

Participant Sentence Condition RT
1 1 A 0.01
1 1 B 0.05
1 2 B 0.07
1 2 A 0.10
2 9 A 0.05
2 9 B 0.08

The first mixed model examines the effect of Condition and Sentence, with a random effect of Participant and by-Participant slopes for Condition, Sentence, and the interaction between these variables.

model_1<-lmer(RT ~ Condition*Sentence+(Condition * Sentence|Participant))

The second mixed model uses only Condition as a fixed effect, but the random effect structure remains the same. While in theory it would seem possible here to investigate how the effect of Sentence varies across participants, I am unsure whether this is possible in a mixed model if Sentence is not specified as a fixed effect.

model_2<-lmer(RT ~ Condition+(Condition * Sentence|Participant))

I realise that all models require selection of the most appropriate model based on the experimental question, theory, and model fitting. I also realise that there are other ways to include Sentence as a random effect, such as with random intercepts for Sentence.This question therefore does not relate to which is the better model and/or whether there are other ways to include Sentence in the model, but asks whether it is ever possible (based on the mathematics/logic of the mixed model) to include a random effect for a variable that is not listed as a fixed effect.

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