I have some data with categorical predictors and I'm wondering about comparing the confidence intervals of difference in means of one pairwise comparison in my TukeyHSD analysis vs that of a two-sample t-test. Which one will have a wider confidence interval and will it always be that way for every pairwise comparison?
I just don't understand what's happening, doesn't a lower p-value mean a wider CI? And if so, then why would we be able to expect TukeyHSD to have a wider/skinnier CI if the p-value for each pairwise comparison in TukeyHSD seems to be either high or low? TukeyHSD adjusts for the probability of making type 1 errors. Bonferroni requires a lower P-value for each individual comparison to lower the family-wise error rate which I assume Tukey does as well, so if the p-value goes down, shouldn't the CI go up?
My CI's for the pairwise comparison $D-C$ for example were:
TukeyHSD: $(-16.8, -4.93)$ and
Two-sample t-test: $(-14.91, -6.82)$
So the CI for the TukeyHSD was wider. Why and will it always be like this?