I know that two data sets can have the same Kendall's $\tau$ but different Pearson's $\rho$.
- What about the opposite? Can two different data sets have the same Pearson's $\rho$, but different Kendall's $\tau$? Or rather, if we know the correlation matrix Pearson's $\rho_{ij}$, does it correspond to precisely one matrix of Kendall's $\tau_{ij}$, obtained by transforming the original matrix to Kendall's $\tau$ by $$\frac{2}{\pi}\arcsin{(\rho_{ij})}$$
- If we sample from a multivariate distribution with a certain population correlation matrix $\rho_{ij}$, is this equivalent to sampling from a distribution with a population matrix $\tau_{ij}$ obtained by the previously mentioned transformation? I.e. do the samples, which have a sample Pearson correlation matrix $\Sigma$ and associated Kendall's correlation matrix, come from the population with this $\tau_{ij}$ obtained by transforming population $\rho_{ij}$?