I am currently working on my thesis and I have run into some issues regarding interpretation of my analysis.
I wanted to find out whether relationship between my IV and DV differs based on gender (two categories - male and female). In statistics classes I have been advised to do quick t-test before running the regression analysis to find out if the two groups (male and female) differ in the DV.
So I have done the t-test and it is nonsignificant. Then I ran the moderated regression and gender did not significantly predict DV and also the interaction was not significant. But also I expected small gender differences based on literature and I do not have the appropriate sample size (N=212 and I would need twice that much) so that nonsignificant interaction might have happened due to that.
This brings me to the t-test - can I still consider the t-test results to be valid when suggesting there are no gender differences in DV?
In the discussion I would probably conclude that the interaction did not occur due to lacking in sample size but can I still interpret the t-test that is suggesting that there are no gender differences?