Let $X_i$ be an iid sample from $X\sim N(\mu,\sigma^2)$. I try to find the generalized likelihood ratio test of $H_0: \sigma^2=\sigma_0^2$ v.s. $H_1: \sigma^2\neq \sigma_0^2$ with $\mu$ unknown.
My work:
I try to find the likelihood ratio statistic: \begin{align} \lambda(x) &= \frac{\sup_{\theta=\theta_0}L(\theta\mid X)}{\sup_{\theta\neq\theta_0}L(\theta\mid X)} \end{align}
For the global MLE case, I know that $$ \sup_{\theta\neq\theta_0}L(\theta\mid X)=L(\hat{\mu},\hat{\sigma}^2)=(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi\hat{\sigma}^2}})^{n} \exp[-\frac{1}{2\hat{\sigma}^2}\sum_{i=1}^n (X_i-\bar{X})^2] $$ where $\hat{\mu}$ is the sample mean and $\hat{\sigma}^2=\frac{1}{n}\sum_i (X_i-\bar{X})^2$.
But for the restricted MLE, I am a little bit confused. Since $\theta=\theta_0$ means $(\mu,\sigma^2)=(\mu, \sigma_0^2)$, then $$ \sup_{\theta=\theta_0}L(\theta\mid X)=\sup L(\mu_0, \sigma_0^2)? $$
Is $\mu_0=\bar{X}$ and $\sigma_0^2=\frac{1}{n}\sum_i (X_i-\bar{X})^2$? So this will be the same as in the global case...