I am calculating the CAPM model of BlackRock share price. In particular the model is:

Rb=return BlackRock Rf= return risk free asset Rm = return SP500

Rb-Rf = intercept + B(Rm-Rf)

In my estimation the value of the intercept is not significant. This means that we accept the hypothesis that the intercept is equal to zero.

I can understand what tha intercept =0 mean but I cannot understand the implications of a value not significant in the model. Can anybody help me?

  • 1
    $\begingroup$ If you need a subject-matter interpretation (i.e. what your finding implies from the perspective of finance), consider posting this on Economics Stack Exchange instead. (There is also Quantitative Finance Stack Exchange, but that one is meant for advanced financial questions only.) $\endgroup$ Apr 14 at 17:42


Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.