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One result of Slutsky's theorem is that when $X_{n}$ is a sequence of random variables converging to a random variable $X$ and $Y_{n}$ a sequence of random variables converging to a constant $c$ then it holds that in the limit $n \rightarrow \infty$ we have that $$X_{n}Y_{n}\ {\xrightarrow {d}}\ cX$$.

But apparently this doesn't hold if the sequence $Y_{n}$ converges to a non-constant random variable $Y$, i.e. generally it does not hold that $$X_{n}Y_{n}\ {\xrightarrow {d}}\ XY.$$

Does anybody have a good intuitive counter-example for this case?

Edit: Both $X_{n}$ and $Y_{n}$ converge in distribution to their respective limits.

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    $\begingroup$ What mode of convergence is $Y_n$ following in the latter relation that you want a counter example of? $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2023 at 11:31

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I am assuming you are looking for a counterexample of $X_n \overset{d}{\to} X$, $Y_n \overset{d}{\to} Y$ but $X_nY_n \overset{d}{\not\to} XY$. If so, let $X, Y$ be i.i.d. $N(0, 1)$ random variable, then let $X_n \equiv Y_n = X$. Then the condition $X_n \overset{d}{\to} X$, $Y_n \overset{d}{\to} Y$ is clearly satisfied. However, $X_nY_n = X^2 \sim \chi^2_1$ obviously does not converge in distribution to $XY$. One way to see this is by noting $P[X^2 \leq 0] = 0 \not\to P[XY \leq 0] = \frac{1}{2}$.

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    $\begingroup$ This is the most common (intuitive) example one can envisage of. I guess OP was indicating the weak convergence. When I see such posts, it is tempting to leave a general result that shows the mechanism when they are valid. (In that vein, I might add a post if I get time). +1. $\endgroup$ Commented May 20, 2023 at 14:15
  • $\begingroup$ Sweet - that's basically what I was looking for. Thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented May 21, 2023 at 12:40

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