0
$\begingroup$

Assume we have two sets of data $X_1$ and $X_2$ drawn from two different distributions. Are the loss of the empirical risk minimizer of $X_1$ on $X_2$: $l_{X_2}(f_{X_1})$ the same as the loss of the empirical risk minimizer of $X_2$ on $X_1$: $l_{X_1}(f_{X_2})$ the same? If not, is there any existing result characterizing this out-of-distribution generalization bound?

$\endgroup$

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.