0
$\begingroup$

According to the article here, we have two disjoint distributions as shown below. enter image description here.

KL divergence for the distributions are

enter image description here

I don't understand why denominators are 0 for both.

$\endgroup$
1

0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.