So I am familiar with the following:
$$P\left(X<x|Y=y\right) =\int_{-\infty}^{x}f\left(X=u|Y=y\right)du=\frac{1}{f\left(Y=y\right)}\cdot\int_{-\infty}^{x}f\left(X=u,Y=y\right)du$$
But during a lecture on copulas, I saw this:
$C_{U_2 \mid U_1}\left(u_2 \mid u_1\right)=\operatorname{Pr}\left(U_2 \leq u_2 \mid U_1=u_1\right)=\frac{\partial}{\partial u_1} C\left(u_1, u_2\right)$
(Because the marginals are standard uniform, you divide by 1 and thus can omit them).
But this means that you can write a conditional cdf as:
$$P\left(X<x|Y=y\right) = \frac{1}{f\left(Y=y\right)}\cdot\frac{\partial}{\partial y} F\left(x, y\right)$$
correct? As a copula is just a cdf.
Which would mean that $$\int_{-\infty}^{x}f\left(X=u,Y=y\right)du = \frac{\partial}{\partial y} F\left(x, y\right)$$
My question is why is the conditional cdf equal to the derivative of the joint cdf divided by the marginal? Or equivalently why: $$\int_{-\infty}^{x}f\left(X=u,Y=y\right)du = \frac{\partial}{\partial y} F\left(x, y\right)$$