I am reviewing textbooks for our new undergraduate course in Bayesian Statistical Methods. In chapter 7 of Ben Lambert's book, A Student's Guide to Bayesian Statistics, he states
Because of the two sources of uncertainty included in our model – the parameter uncertainty and sampling variability – the uncertainty of the Bayesian predictive distribution is typically greater than the Frequentist equivalent. This is because the Frequentist approach to forecasting typically makes predictions based on a point estimate of a parameter (typically the maximum likelihood value). By ignoring any uncertainty in the parameter’s value, the Frequentist approach produces predictive intervals that are overly confident.
[emphasis mine]
Then in the chapter summary, it is restated:
By including our epistemic uncertainty in parameter values as part of a forecast, this Bayesian approach provides a better quantification of uncertainty than the equivalent Frequentist methods.
Without going into more detail about how this book is written to suggest that everything Bayesian is good and correct (and thus all things Frequentist are bad and incorrect), I found myself needing to push back on this claim.
While I believe I know the answer to the titular question, perhaps my understanding is incorrect...and I wanted to put it here for feedback from this community.
As an example of how I believe this assertion in the book to be incorrect, I will use an example from multiple regression. If you wish to estimate a value from a model, you have the following $$\hat{y}_o = \beta_0 + \beta x_o$$ (where $\beta$ and $x_o$ may be vectors). If you wish to use this estimate as the conditional mean given the values of $X=x_o$, then $\hat{y}_o$ would be the point estimate, and the confidence interval for the conditional mean would be $$\hat{y}_o + t_\text{c.v.} \cdot \hat{\sigma} \sqrt{x_o^T (X·X^T)^{-1} x_o}$$ (for the appropriate critical value for the context and desired confidence level).
However, if you want the prediction (confidence) interval, you would use the following: $$\hat{y}_o + t_\text{c.v.} \cdot \hat{\sigma} \sqrt{1 + x_o^T (X·X^T)^{-1} x_o}$$ ...and unless I am wrong, the radicand captures the "epistemic uncertainty" that that author claims is not present. The 1 models the variability from the distribution and the second term models the variability from the parameter estimate (as it is not assumed to be a fixed value for prediction interval estimation).
Again, if I am incorrect or there are other contexts where this critique of the Frequentist approach is indeed valid...please share.