I'm newcomer in statistic so I'll ask probably stupid question: if normally distributed observation required to use t-test, why couldn't be used z-statistic and subsequent calculation of probability?
I mean, our observations came from $N(0, 1)$, so why it must use some strange terrific t-distribution, when using normal distribution fits naturally. What is intuitive behind $T = \frac{\overline{X} - \mu}{\frac{s}{\sqrt{n}}}$ came not from $N(0, 1)$, but from $t(n - 1)$.
And I have another question: Is there situations, when data isn't distributed normally? I mean, the CLT says: if there are enough of our observations, then their sum is subject to a normal distribution.