I am trying to understand the difference between the two modelling approaches described below that stems from the causal graphs. Our goal is to causally measure the total treatment effect of our expenditure of two investment options denoted $X_1, X_2$ on the final outcome sales $Y$. To our help we also have measurements of mediators denoted $end\_exog\_1, end\_exog\_2$.
We know that the investment options causally affect sales in the following way:
Note that all variables are observed: yellow ovals denote exogenous variables and blue ovals denote endogenous variables.
To model this we set up the following system of equations(just as an example, note that the graph does not explicitly state any concrete computations, just relations between variables): \begin{align} Y &= b_0 + b_1 * end\_exog\_2 + b_2 * x_1 + b_3 * x_2 + \epsilon\\ end\_exog\_2 &= b_4 + b_5 * end\_exog\_1 + x_1 * b_6 + x_2 * b_7 + \epsilon\\ end\_exog\_1 &= b_8 + b_9 * x_1 + b_{10} * x_2 + \epsilon \end{align}
We could also get rid of our mediator variables $end\_exog\_1, end\_exog\_2$ resulting in a graph with solely two edges $X_1 -> Y, X_2 -> Y$ which we could consider e.g as a single multiple regression equation(just as an example, note that the graph does not explicitly state any concrete computations, just relations between variables): $Y = b_0 + b_1 * X_1 + b_2 * X_2$.
My understanding of why choose one modelling approach over the other one: since we have this extra information in $end\_exog\_1, end\_exog\_2$ and we know the causal structure it should be smart to utilize it.
Given the simple structure with just 2 edges as in case 2 the effect is indeed identifiable, as can be shown by the backdoor criterion as well as the frontdoor criterion. For situation number 1 it is a bit different: the backdoor criterion is violated due to the mediator variables being descendants of our exogenous variables $X_1, X_2$. However, the frontdoor criterion is still valid.
Which is the preferred modelling way given that we want to understand the total treatment effect of $X_1, X_2$ on $Y$ and why is that?