Given some standard assumptions, the test statistic
$$ \frac{\Delta\bar{X}}{\sigma/\sqrt{N}} $$
is normally distributed if $\sigma$ is known and t-distributed if $\sigma$ has to be estimated from the sample. The difference of the distributions is most pronounced for small sample sizes and in the tails (which are fatter for the t-distribution).
I wonder whether there's an intuitive explanation as to why the tails of the t-distribution are fatter when $\sigma$ is not (exactly) known.
I found two intuitive explanations for the fat tails of the t-distrbution on CV.
The first one:
The overall answer is that the T-Distribution gives a higher probability to extreme events, given a small sample size. The reasoning behind this is intuitive in that, as you can imagine, if you have relatively small sample from a population, there is a higher probability that an extreme event from the population did not "make it" into your sample. On the other hand, if you have a relatively large sample from the same population, the probability that an extreme event did not "make it" into your sample is lower, since your sample is capturing more of that population.
This is the second one:
With small sample sizes, it's relatively likely that one of the two samples will receive a slightly extreme datapoint that will skew its mean and make you think that there is a real difference between the two samples when instead nothing is going on. To correct for such small-size effect you allow more extreme values of the difference between samples to be relatively likely before claiming "significance of difference". I.e. the t-distribution, against which you map the value of the t-statistics to obtain the p-value, has fatter tails than the normal distribution. As the sample sizes increases, this correction becomes negligible and you don't need to worry about using Normal or T-distribution (or T-test vs Z-test).
Now, it seems to me that the two explanations are contradictory (though not 100% sure) and to me the second explanation is very intuitive.
In any case, both explanations would be compatible with a scenario of known population variance as well. They do not even talk about known/unknown population variance, even though if it is known we would (theoretically) obtain a normal distribution even for small samples.
So my question: is there an intuitive explanation as to why the tails of the t are (need to be) fatter precisely when $\sigma$ is unknown? In particular, why does the argument given in the quoted second explanation only apply to a case of unknown variance?