I've hit a small snag in working out some of the implications of the residual maker matrix $M$.
Through previous posts I've been able to understand the difference between the use of $e$ and $\epsilon$, however there is still something I don't understand. We have the residual maker matrix, $M = I-X(X'X)^{-1}X'$, and we also know that $e=My$ since
$e = y - \hat y = y - Py = y - X(X'X)^{-1}X'y = (I-X(X'X)^{-1}X')y = My$
My concern, however, comes with when we evaluate this line further. We have two equivalencies for $y$. In the matrix form of our model we have $y=X\beta + \epsilon$. However, since we can also represent our residual as $e=y-X\hat \beta$ given that $\hat y = X\hat \beta$, we can also define $y=X\hat \beta + e$. If we substitute either $y$ into $e= My$, while also knowing that
$MX=0$ since $(I-X(X'X)^{-1}X')X = X - X(X'X)^{-1}X'X = X- XI = X -X = 0$,
we get that $e$ can be represented both as
$e = My = M(X\hat \beta + e) = Me$
and
$e= My =M(X\beta + \epsilon) = M\epsilon$.
If $e=Me=M\epsilon$, does that not necessitate that $e=\epsilon$, at least in this model? I've seen lecture notes write either one of these equivalencies but never both at the same time, so at this point I feel as if I'm running in circles. Any insight would be greatly appreciated!