6
$\begingroup$

Let $X_i$ be iid random variables. How does one show that

$$ \frac{1}{n(n-1)}\sum_{i\neq j}^n \sin\left(X_i X_j\right) $$ converges almost surely to a constant?

$\endgroup$
9
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Is this a homework question or something from a textbook? Could you add information about the nature of the question such that the answers can be adapted for this. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2023 at 9:49
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ If it is a homework, then you should add self-study tag and maybe include your attempts or ideas in the post so that answers can be built upon your current progress. $\endgroup$
    – Derf
    Commented Oct 22, 2023 at 9:51
  • $\begingroup$ Do you need to proof convergence in probability to a constant or convergence almost sure to a constant? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2023 at 10:18
  • $\begingroup$ This is a problem I found on a statistics entrance exam for the Indian Statistical Institute (if I remember correctly); I’ve not yet found it any textbook although if you know of (similar) problems in a textbook I’d be happy to hear a reference. My main issue is that I don’t know of an LLN that finds purchase with this kind of dependence structure. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2023 at 11:44
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ What you have is a U-statistic $\frac1{\binom{n}{2}}\sum_{1\le i<j\le n}\sin(X_iX_j)$. Reading up on SLLN/consistency for U-statistics could help. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 20:51

3 Answers 3

4
$\begingroup$

I think it is worth elaborating @StubbornAtom's sharp comment as applying the U-statistics theory is perhaps the most direct way to prove this proposition. To this end, identify the random variable of interest as the U-statistic \begin{align} U_n := U(X_1, \ldots, X_n) := \frac{1}{\binom{n}{2}}\sum_{1 \leq i < j \leq n}h(X_i, X_j), \end{align} where $h(x, y) = \sin(xy)$ is the "kernel" function of this U-statistic. Now the result immediately follows by the following theorem (cf. Approximation Theorems of Mathematical Statistics by R.Serfling, Theorem 5.4.A) because $|h| \leq 1$:

If $E[|h|] < \infty$, then $U_n$ converges to $\theta = E[h(X_1, X_2)]$ almost surely.

For more details (e.g., which references provided the proof to this theorem), refer to the same reference, Section 5.4. At high-level, the key of the proof is the Hoeffding representation of the quantity $U_n - \theta$.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Hmm this does seem to be a martingale approach in disguise... this is probably the method the examiners expected, although they probably expected students to use the reverse martingale convergence theorem directly rather than the theorem on U-statistics (which isn't part of the standard undergraduate curriculum). $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 7:15
7
$\begingroup$

In the case of the weak LLN

We can prove that the variance of the sum decreases for increasing $n$ (then applying Chebyshev's inequality).

For simplicity of writing the equations, I will define $$Z_{\mathscr{ij}} = \sin(X_\mathscr{i}X_\mathscr{j})$$ and $$S_n = \frac{1}{n(n-1)} \sum_{\mathscr{i}\neq \mathscr{j}} Z_{\mathscr{ij}}$$

The variance of the sum can be computed as

$$\operatorname{Var}(S_n) = \left(\frac{1}{n(n-1)} \right)^2 \sum_{\mathscr{i}\neq \mathscr{j}} \sum_{\mathscr{k}\neq\mathscr{l}} \operatorname{Cov}(Z_{\mathscr{ij}} Z_{\mathscr{kl}}).$$

We have three situations of the covariance terms

$$\operatorname{Cov}(Z_{\mathscr{ij}} Z_{\mathscr{kl}}) = \begin{cases} V & \quad \text{if $\mathscr{ij} = \mathscr{kl}$ or if $\mathscr{ij} = \mathscr{lk}$} \\ C & \quad \text{if ($\mathscr{i} = \mathscr{k}$ and $\mathscr{j}\neq \mathscr{l}$) or ($\mathscr{i} = \mathscr{l}$ and $\mathscr{j} \neq \mathscr{k}$)} \\ 0 & \quad \text{if $\mathscr{i} \neq \mathscr{j} \neq \mathscr{k} \neq \mathscr{l}$} \\ \end{cases}$$

For each $\mathscr{ij}$ pair, there are 2 cases of $V$ and $2 (n-2)$ cases of $C.$

Then the variance can be computed as

$$\begin{align} \operatorname{Var}(S_n) &= \left(\frac{1}{n(n-1)} \right)^2 \sum_{\mathscr{i}\neq \mathscr{j}} (2V+ 2(n-2)C) \\[6pt] &= \left(\frac{1}{n(n-1)} \right)^2 (n(n-1)) (2V+ 2(n-2) C) \\[6pt] &= 2 \frac{V+(n-2)C}{n(n-1)} \end{align} $$ and this approaches zero for increasing $n$.

$\endgroup$
11
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ A side note, Sextus, try to not define the new commands at the beginning of the post - it inadvertently creates an unusual space at the beginning of the post. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 2:04
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @User1865345 I didn't do that ;-) $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 6:24
  • $\begingroup$ I see, Sextus. It was Michael Hardy. But the comment stands! $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 6:29
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ There is a problem associated with defining commands here: the definitions apply to all posts (and perhaps comments -- I haven't checked) on that page, no matter whose. Consequently, for posts on this site, I have adopted a cut-and-paste practice rather than the more elegant approach of command definition. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 12:01
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @innisfree Yes, since all $Z_{\mathscr{ij}}$ have second moments $\leq 1$. $\endgroup$
    – statmerkur
    Commented Oct 26, 2023 at 1:56
3
$\begingroup$

Acting hastily, I first thought that the boundeness of $Y_{ij}\mathrel{:=\sin(X_iX_j)}$ and $\mathop{\mathbb E}\left[Y_{ij}^2\right] \leq \mathbb E[1] = 1$ would be enough to solve the problem with a version of the strong law of large numbers for pairwise uncorrelated random variables.
However, clearly, in general we don't have pairwise uncorrelatedness of $Y_{ij}$ and $Y_{ik}$ for $j \neq k$ if $X_i \overset{\mathrm{i.i.d.}}{\sim} \mathbb P$ for an arbitrary distribution $\mathbb P$ on $\mathcal B(\mathbb R).$


We can exploit the following result (e.g., Brown, 1992, Proposition 1) to show almost sure convergence:

Suppose that $\left(X_k\right)_{k \in \mathbb N_{\geq 1}}$ is a sequence of complex-valued random variables of bounded modulus and that $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}\mathop{\mathbb E}\left[\left|\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^nX_k\right|^2\right] < \infty. $$ Then $\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^nX_k \overset{n \to \infty}{\longrightarrow} 0$ almost surely.

This result is a slight generalization of Theorem 1 in Lyons (1988), in which $|X_k|\leq 1$ almost surely $\forall \,k \in \mathbb N_{\geq 1}$ is assumed, and can be proved analogously.


Let $\mu \mathrel{:=} \mathbb E[Y_{ij}].$
Applying the above result to the sequence $\left(Y_{ij}-\mu\right)_{i \neq j}$ with $$ \mathop{\mathbb E}\left[\left|\frac{1}{n\left(n-1\right)} \sum_{i \neq j}^n \left(Y_{ij}-\mu\right)\right|^2\right] = \mathop{\mathbb V}\left[\frac{1}{n\left(n-1\right)} \sum_{i \neq j}^n Y_{ij}\right] $$ and $\mathop{\mathbb V}\left[\frac{1}{n\left(n-1\right)} \sum_{i \neq j}^n Y_{ij}\right] = 2 \frac{V+(n-2)C}{n(n-1)} \leq c/n$ (for all $n \in \mathbb N_{\geq 2}$ and a constant $c \in \mathbb R_{>0}$) from Sextus Empiricus' answer yields $$ \frac{1}{n\left(n-1\right)} \sum_{i \neq j}^n \left(Y_{ij}-\mu\right)\underset{n \to \infty}{\overset{\mathrm{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow}} 0, $$ and hence $$ \frac{1}{n\left(n-1\right)} \sum_{i \neq j}^n Y_{ij} \underset{n \to \infty}{\overset{\mathrm{a.s.}}{\longrightarrow}} \mu. $$


References

$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ The terms are not independent. I don’t know if there’s a particular law of large numbers which works with a dependence structure of this form — perhaps a triangular array LLN? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 22, 2023 at 11:39
  • $\begingroup$ I tried this trick relating to the Borel–Cantelli lemma, but I had a converging series instead. Are you sure it isn't $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\mathop{\mathbb E}\left[\left|\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^nX_k\right|^2\right] < \infty.$$ instead of $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}\mathop{\mathbb E}\left[\left|\frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^nX_k\right|^2\right] < \infty.$$ $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 12:40
  • $\begingroup$ Possibly it helps that the summands are bounded. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 12:58
  • $\begingroup$ @SextusEmpiricus from what I know the result should be how I've stated it, I didn't check the proof though. Without the factor $1/n$ the result wouldn't apply because the series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty c/n$ diverges. $\endgroup$
    – statmerkur
    Commented Oct 23, 2023 at 15:02
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @SextusEmpiricus I've added a reference that proves (a slight variation on) the result, in case you're interested. $\endgroup$
    – statmerkur
    Commented Oct 25, 2023 at 18:58

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.