Main questions are in bold but feel free to correct me if I'm wrong somewhere else. As far as possible, I need both intuition and formal explanation.
Let $X \sim Uniform(a,b)$ and $Y \sim Uniform(c,d)$ be two independent random variables and $Z=X-Y$ be the difference of these variables.
I need to compute $P(\mathbf{Z} \le z) = F_\mathbf{Z}(z)$ which I suppose is the PDF of a symmetric triangular distribution with support $[a-d,b-c]$. (a) Is this correct?
We know:
$$ f_\mathbf{X}(x) = \frac{1}{b-a} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ x \in [a,b] \\\\ f_\mathbf{Y}(y) = \frac{1}{d-c} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ y \in [c,d] $$
Let $Y' = -Y$, with:
$$ f_\mathbf{Y'}(y') = f_\mathbf{Y}(-y') = \frac{1}{d-c} \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ y' \in [-d,-c] $$
(b) Is the above equation correct? Why?
We now have $Z=X+Y'$ and we know that the convolution/sum of random variables is as follows:
$$ f_\mathbf{Z}(z) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty f_\mathbf{X}(x)\ f_{Y'}(z-x)\ \ dx $$
I understand the convolution is the evolution in the common area below two functions where one is slipped on the x-axis (example). However, I don't understand (c) why it is equivalent to the addition of random variables.
I know how to draw the convolution graphically (example), from which I can deduce the analytic form. But (d) how can I compute $f_\mathbf{Z}(z)$ analytically?
self-study
tag since I'd wager dollars-to-doughnuts this is a homework question. It will also garner a bit more patience from answerers who agree to provide didactic answers, rather than their own work. $\endgroup$