I have been asked to review a paper where the authors have intensive longitudinal data (several observations per day for several days). So they have lots of observations per participant. They do three things that strike me as wrong:
they run a multilevel regression and save the participant-specific random slope coefficients. Then, they compute within-person correlations between those participant-specific slope coefficients and the (raw) momentary variable that was the dependent variable in the first multilevel regression and present these correlations as one of the findings.
they run several multilevel regressions, save the participant-specific random slopes and correlate them with each other (within-person), and present these correlations as one of the findings.
from the multilevel regression mentioned in #1, they take the participant-specific random slope coefficients and then use them in a subsequent analysis as the dependent variable (or possible as mediator, it's a bit unclear).
All this seems wrong to me, but I'm not sure my feeling is correct, and if so, why. I have a vague idea that these procedures would make standard errors artificially small (in the latter analyses) but that's about it. Also the authors use very sophisticated analyses otherwise so they seem to know what they're doing (I know it's no guarantee but I feel a bit uncomfortable criticizing them).
Is my intuition completely wrong or is the above questionable?