MLE for independent data samples $D = (x_1,y_1), (x_2,y_2), (x_3,y_3) ... (x_N, y_N)$ can be formulated as
$$ L(D) = \prod_{i=1}^N p_i(x_i, y_i) $$
And the log likelihood being:
$$ \log(L(D)) = \sum_{i=1}^N \log(p_i(x_i, y_i)) $$
However, I have seen in numerous literature the log likelihood being written as
$$ \log(L(D)) = \frac{1}{N} \times \sum_{i=1}^N \log(p_i(x_i, y_i)) $$
I have some questions:
- Why is the log likelihood divided by sample size? This is no effect on parameter estimation in my opinion.
- Is it assumed that the data generating process is I.I.D. for this division to make sense?