I am trying to work out the Bayesian posteriors of $\theta$, $\tau$ and the $\varepsilon$ in the following model: $$y(t) = \phi(t,\tau)\theta+v(t),$$ where $\{v(t)\}$ is an iid sequence of random variables with Gaussian distribution with zero mean and $\varepsilon$ variance. I assume Gaussian priors for the $\theta$ and $\tau$ and an arbitrary discrete prior for $\tau$. Using the Bayes' Theorem, I can say that the joint posterior distribution of these variables is $$P(\theta, \tau, \varepsilon|O)\propto L(\theta, \tau, \varepsilon|O)P(\theta, \tau, \varepsilon)$$ where $O$ represents the observations and $P(\theta, \tau, \varepsilon) = f(\theta)P(\tau)f(\varepsilon)$.
To calculate the marginal posterior distribution of $\theta$, I can integrate out the $\tau$ and $\varepsilon$. The only reason that I do this is because this is how I have learnt to find the marginal distributions. However, I have seen people conditioning on the other variables to obtain the posterior distribution of $\theta$. The same goes for the posterior distribution of $\tau$. Do I condition it on $\theta$, or $\varepsilon$ or both or do I integrate them out? There seems to be a gap in my understanding here. Any help here would be appreciated. Thanks.