In context of regression, when does it not make sense to standardize a variable?
I understand that in binary & categorical variables, the mean and standard deviation are meaningless.
My understanding of the justification when appropriate is that 1/ it can reduce correlation between features, 2/ the effect of predictor variables on response variables will be on the same scale (standard deviations), enabling "apples to apples" comparison, 3/ sometimes a 1-unit increase in a variable is difficult to interpret whereas distance from the mean is inherently relative and 4/ the effect is assumed to be 0 at the predictor variable's mean.
Great! But is it applicable for all continuous distributions? What about...
- Skewed distributions
- Incomplete domains, not (-inf, inf) ex: Exponential
I understand that due to the central limit theorem, the sampling distribution of the mean of (virtually) any distribution will be normally distributed. So in context of regression when we're making statement about the mean, not specific units, perhaps CLT applies and so standardization is generally permissible.
This related question was not focused enough, yet given 3 upvotes, I'm hoping the increased granularity of my question will draw some answers.
I know that Cauchy is no go here due to infinite variance. Tbh I'm not sure how that works but for at least one distribution, the answer is "no".