One of the core components of causal inference is the consistency of treatment. One element of this is the absence of interference, where the exposure in a spatial/temporal unit does not affect the outcome of a non-exposed unit. Interference can impact units spatially (treatment effects "leaking" over borders for example, in a country-level study) or temporally (anticipation effects).
However, anticipation effects are often a core point of causal inquiry. For example, I have been reading the literature on humanitarian interventions and one of the arguments levied against the use of humanitarian interventions is that the expectation of a future humanitarian intervention incentivizes dissidents to engage in asymmetric conflict with the state.
Given the implied anticipation effects, one could view this argument as a complication in testing the argument:
$Humanitarian Intervention_{it} \rightarrow Violence_{it}$
Alternatively, one could be interested in testing this anticipation effect... although I will admit that when I draw the DAG for this, it gets somewhat nonsensical because it feels like I am kind of testing the following:
$Humanitarian Intervention_{it+1} \rightarrow Violence_{it}$
So, my question is twofold: 1) with the presence of anticipation effects, is causal identification still possible, and 2) how can one test whether the anticipation effect actually exists?