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Suppose $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n\{f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i)\}^2$ and $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n\{g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i)\}^2$ are $O_p(a^2_n)$ for some sequence $a_n$ such that $a_n = O(n^{-r}$) where $r > 1/4$.

Suppose $Y_i$ is a binary 0/1 random variable, $f(\cdot)$ is bounded between -1 and 1, (i.e., $-1 \leq f(X_i) \leq 1$ for any $X_i$) and $g(\cdot)$ is bounded between 0 and 1 (i.e., $0 \leq g(X_i) \leq 1$ for any $X_i$). Observations $i = 1, \ldots, n$ are i.i.d, and $\hat{f}_n(\cdot)$ and $\hat{g}_n(\cdot)$ are estimators obtained from these observations.

What is the big $O_p$ for

$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n [(f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i) + (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))]^2?$$

Expanding the square, we get a sum of 3 terms:

\begin{align*} &\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n [(f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i) + (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))]^2\\ &=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \{f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i)\}^2g^2(X_i)+2(f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i)(\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i)) + (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)^2(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))^2 \end{align*}

Term 1: $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \{f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i)\}^2g^2(X_i)$

Since $g(X_i)$ is bounded, and $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n\{f(X_i)-\hat{f}_n(X_i)\}^2$ is $O_p(a^2_n)$, then Term 1 is $O_p(a^2_n)$.

Term 2: $\frac{2}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i)(\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))$

Since $g(X_i) \leq 1$ and $|\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i| \leq 2$, then we have

\begin{align*} &\frac{2}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i)(\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))\\ &\leq C \sqrt{\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \{f(X_i)-\hat{f}_n(X_i)\}^2\right)\left(\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \{g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i)\}^2\right)}\\ &= O_p(a^2_n) \end{align*} where $C$ is some positive constant, and the inequality holds by Cauchy-Schwarz.

Term 3: $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)^2(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))^2$

Since $|\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i| \leq 2$

$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)^2(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))^2 \leq \frac{4}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))^2 = O_p(a^2_n)$$

Altogether, we have

\begin{align*} &\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n [(f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i) + (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))]^2\\ &= O_p(a^2_n) + O_p(a^2_n) + O_p(a^2_n)\\ &= O_p(a^2_n) \end{align*}

Is the above correct? I'm not very sure about Term 2 and Term 3 particularly with respect to factoring out $\hat{f}_n(X_i)-Y_i$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Did you try to simulate it? $\endgroup$
    – Ggjj11
    Commented Aug 1 at 17:11
  • $\begingroup$ @Adrian the example was actually incorrect. That expectation $e^{-n}/n$ only decreases faster than $e^{-n} \cdot e^{-n(1-p)}$ when $p=1$. If the variable is non-negative, then for any quantile $p<1$ the decrease is bounded by the decrease of the expectation. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 2 at 7:05
  • $\begingroup$ The expressions are not all clear. Subscripts are missing occasionally. Also, the bounds of $\hat{f}(X_n)$ are not clear. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 2 at 9:11
  • $\begingroup$ "Assume observations i=1,…,n are i.i.d" Does this mean that the terms $\{f(X_i) - \hat{f}(X_i)\}$ are i.i.d. distributed? Then, if the average of their square approaches zero, this must mean that the expectation of the square is zero and that these variables have a zero second raw moment $E[\{f(X_i) - \hat{f}(X_i)\}^2] = 0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 2 at 10:11
  • $\begingroup$ No. $\{f(X_i) - \hat{f}(X_i)\}$ is not necessarily i.i.d. because I'll clarify that $\hat{f}$ is an estimator derived from $\{X_i\}_{i=1}^n$. $\endgroup$
    – Adrian
    Commented Aug 2 at 12:09

1 Answer 1

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In theory no, in practice yes.

Since $f(\cdot)$ is bounded between 1 and -1, any sensible estimator $\hat{f}_n(\cdot)$ would alo be bounded between 1 and -1. In that case, we can bound $|g(X_i)| \leq 1$ and $|\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i| \leq 2$ and everything works.

$$\begin{align}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \left[(f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i) + (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))\right]^2 \\ \leq \frac{4}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \left[|f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i)| + |g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i)|\right]^2\\ \leq \frac{8}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \left[|f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i)|^2 + |g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i)|^2\right]\\ = 8\cdot O_p(a_n^2) + 8\cdot O_p(a_n^2) = O_p(a_n^2)\\ \end{align}$$

However, if we have some crazy estimator, things may go wrong. Consider for example the following scenario:

  • $f(X_i) = g(X_i) = 0$ for all $i$
  • $\hat{f}_n(X_i) = \hat{g}_n(X_i) = \sqrt[5]{n}$ if $n = 32^k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$
  • $\hat{f}_n(X_i) = \hat{g}_n(X_i) = 0$ if $n$ is not a power of 32

In this case $\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))^2 = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n (g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))^2 = O(n^{-3/5})$.

However, setting $n = 32^k$, we also get $$\begin{align}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n \left[(f(X_i) - \hat{f}_n(X_i))g(X_i) + (\hat{f}_n(X_i) - Y_i)(g(X_i) - \hat{g}_n(X_i))\right]^2\\ = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^{k} \left[2^i\cdot g(X_{32^i}) + (2^i - Y_{32^i})(g(X_{32^i}) - 2^i)\right]^2\\ \geq \frac{1}{n}\left[n^{1/5}\cdot g(X_n) + (n^{1/5} - Y_n)(g(X_n) - n^{1/5})\right]^2\\ = \Omega(n^{-1/5})\\ \end{align}$$ which contradicts that the expression would be $O_p(a_n^2)$ for some $a_n = O(n^{-r})$ with $r > 1/4$.

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