I was wondering if I could get a third opinion to settle a discussion on the distinction between independent and non-informative censoring.
1) In independent censoring, the event and censoring rates are assumed to be the same conditional on the level of the covariates.
2) In non-informative censoring we assume that the time to censorship distribution is not related to the time-to-event distribution (e.g. if a patient in a study received the event, then another patient in the study is selected randomly to leave the study).
1) She has not heard of/used the phrase "independent censoring".
2) Noninformative censoring is when time to event and time to censoring are independent conditional on the level of covariates.
Who's on point with regards to these two types of censoring? Are we both correct (and I just fail to see the equivalence)? both incorrect? I think the two have just very subtle differences that change the meaning of the terms.
I appreciate your insights!