I'm looking to get some advice/thoughts on the following situation: let's say I have a prospective, observational study that was designed to assess change in BMI over two years of follow-up (primary outcome) in a population that was administered drug A and Drug B per standard of care. The point is not to compare BMI between groups A and B but to assess BMI changes within each group.
Visits with height and weight collection were supposed to occur every six months (baseline, six months, 12 months, 18 months and 24 months) for 24 months. However, due to high dropout, only 40% of participants had the full 24 months of follow-up, so the sample size target for the primary outcome was not met.
I was thinking of using a mixed effects model, given the longitudinal nature of the study, to account for within-participant correlations with Fixed effects for time (months since baseline), drug group, and their interaction. Random Effects: random intercepts and slopes for each participant to account for individual variations.
However, the investigator is also pushing for missing data imputation, but I'm not sure if that's feasible or how to justify this to regulatory authorities, given that we'd have to impute more than 50% of the data.
How would you handle this situation? Is imputation warranted here, and if yes, what imputation method would be best suited (perhaps a pattern-mixture model, given that the missing data pattern is MNAR?)? Are there any articles you'd recommend I read about how others might have dealt with a similar problem and solved it?
Any advice/references would be greatly appreciated.
Thanks!